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Mnemon
11-19-2008, 06:34 AM
Hi,

I just discovered that the person producing the goods has to pay the market fee when fullfilling a buy order. That just feels the wrong way round.

In this case - I do have the amount of goods needed, but can't fullfill the buying order as I don't have enough bread to cover the fees.

If this is as intended, however, would it be possible to just take out the fee from the bread earned, rather than having to have an adequate amount in store to be able to fullfill the buying order, at all?

Cheers,
-Mnemon

Leperous
11-19-2008, 10:00 AM
*Edit* sorry, just understood what you're saying.

You're right, you should get the bread and then be taxed for it.

But it's still right that you should pay the market fee. It's tax on bread transfer: so when you fulfill a buy-order, you get bread in return, so that's taxed; if you sell something on the market, you get bread, and that's taxed too.

CppThis
11-19-2008, 02:03 PM
It's a sales tax so the seller should always get hit with it for fairness. I do agree that it should be auto-deducted from the order payment, though.

Agamemnus
11-19-2008, 02:23 PM
Maybe it should simply be changed to allow you to fulfill the buy order without having that reserve?

Beamup
11-19-2008, 03:10 PM
I think that makes sense too.