Mnemon
11-19-2008, 06:34 AM
Hi,
I just discovered that the person producing the goods has to pay the market fee when fullfilling a buy order. That just feels the wrong way round.
In this case - I do have the amount of goods needed, but can't fullfill the buying order as I don't have enough bread to cover the fees.
If this is as intended, however, would it be possible to just take out the fee from the bread earned, rather than having to have an adequate amount in store to be able to fullfill the buying order, at all?
Cheers,
-Mnemon
I just discovered that the person producing the goods has to pay the market fee when fullfilling a buy order. That just feels the wrong way round.
In this case - I do have the amount of goods needed, but can't fullfill the buying order as I don't have enough bread to cover the fees.
If this is as intended, however, would it be possible to just take out the fee from the bread earned, rather than having to have an adequate amount in store to be able to fullfill the buying order, at all?
Cheers,
-Mnemon